It seems every time I'm on FF someone is making a claim that "everyone knows the market trends 20% of the time and ranges 80% of the time". The problem with these types of statements is that there is very little context given to these statements. For example:
What market are you talking about?
What timeframe (if any) are you talking about?
What timespan are you talking about?
How do you define a trend?
How do you define a range?
Without this additional information, these types of statements are rather ridiculous.
So, the purpose of this thread is to see if anyone out there wants to provide some context and concrete data to substantiate the claim that the market trends x% of the time and ranges y% of the time.
Now, of course the definition of a trend can be very personal. Asking 100 people how they define a trend may result in 95-100 different answers. But this is exactly what we are looking for here. I don't think there is necessarily a correct or exact answer to the question, but it would be nice if someone could actually show us how these numbers were derived.
Give us something more than "I read those numbers somewhere and it seems about right". Give us some actual data to backup these statements.
For example, I might say something like:
"The market trends 72.4% of the time and ranges 27.6% of the time."
And to put this statement into the proper context, I would say:
- The market is defined as the EUR/USD
- The timeframe is H1
- The timespan is from 1/13/2010 - 1/11/2013 (about 3 years or about 18,750 bars)
- A given bar is in a trend when the bar closes with the RSI(14) above 55 or below 45.
- A given bar is in a range when the bar closes with the RSI(14) between 55 and 45.
Does this statement now give us definitive proof about the trend percentage of EUR/USD? Probably not. But, at the very least we have added some context to the statement about trend/range percentage. Anyone with a EURUSD H1 chart can verify the accuracy of the data and can form their own opinions about the validity of the statement. We now have something concrete to work with...something more than just some numbers pulled out of thin air.
Any other takers?
What market are you talking about?
What timeframe (if any) are you talking about?
What timespan are you talking about?
How do you define a trend?
How do you define a range?
Without this additional information, these types of statements are rather ridiculous.
So, the purpose of this thread is to see if anyone out there wants to provide some context and concrete data to substantiate the claim that the market trends x% of the time and ranges y% of the time.
Now, of course the definition of a trend can be very personal. Asking 100 people how they define a trend may result in 95-100 different answers. But this is exactly what we are looking for here. I don't think there is necessarily a correct or exact answer to the question, but it would be nice if someone could actually show us how these numbers were derived.
Give us something more than "I read those numbers somewhere and it seems about right". Give us some actual data to backup these statements.
For example, I might say something like:
"The market trends 72.4% of the time and ranges 27.6% of the time."
And to put this statement into the proper context, I would say:
- The market is defined as the EUR/USD
- The timeframe is H1
- The timespan is from 1/13/2010 - 1/11/2013 (about 3 years or about 18,750 bars)
- A given bar is in a trend when the bar closes with the RSI(14) above 55 or below 45.
- A given bar is in a range when the bar closes with the RSI(14) between 55 and 45.
Does this statement now give us definitive proof about the trend percentage of EUR/USD? Probably not. But, at the very least we have added some context to the statement about trend/range percentage. Anyone with a EURUSD H1 chart can verify the accuracy of the data and can form their own opinions about the validity of the statement. We now have something concrete to work with...something more than just some numbers pulled out of thin air.
Any other takers?